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Only Calvin’s Elect are Lost? The Reprobates are not . . .? Can You Help Me to Solve This Riddle?

Posted by Tom Lessing on July 23, 2009

Death of the Reprobate I assume you already know that the Reformed fraternity is celebrating the 500th anniversary of John Calvin’s birth on 10 The elect July 1509 this year. You don’t? Well, then it’s about time you dust off the cobwebs from your history books. First off, I must warn you that this is a Calvinistic riddle and they are usually tougher than a genuine South African Boere-toffee. Those of you who do not know the real meaning of the words “world,” “whomsoever,” and “all men,” should not even try to solve the riddle and rather bow out right now. OK! Let’s set the scene with a few very potent quotes from the lips of some of the most famous and distinguished Calvinists.

Many professing a desire to defend the Deity from an invidious charge admit the doctrine of election, but deny that any one is reprobated (Bernard. in Die Ascensionis, Serm. 2). This they do ignorantly and childishly since there could be no election without its opposite, reprobation. God is said to set apart those whom he adopts for salvation. It were most absurd to say, that he admits others fortuitously, or that they by their industry acquire what election alone confers on a few. Those, therefore, whom God passes by he reprobates, and that for no other cause but because he is pleased to exclude them from the inheritance which he predestines to his children (John Calvin: Institutes of the Christian Religion Book 3, Chapter 23, Sec. 2226)

Scripture clearly proves … that God by his eternal and immutable counsel determined once for all those whom it was his pleasure one day to admit to salvation, and those whom, on the other hand, it was his pleasure to doom to destruction. ” (John Calvin: Institutes of the Christian Religion, Book 3, Chapter 7, Sec. 2210)

For he is speaking of the greatness of God, whose pleasure it is to inflict punishment on fools and transgressors though he is not pleased to bestow his Spirit upon them. It is a monstrous infatuation in men to seek to subject that which has no bounds to the little measure of their reason. Paul gives the name of elect to the angels who maintained their integrity. If their steadfastness was owing to the good pleasure of God, the revolt of the others proves that they were abandoned. Of this no other cause can be adduced than reprobation, which is hidden in the secret counsel of God. (John Calvin: Institutes of the Christian Religion Book 3, Chapter 23, Sec. 2229)

Now, since the arrangement of all things is in the hand of God, since to him belongs the disposal of life and death, he arranges all things by his sovereign counsel, in such a way that individuals are born, who are doomed from the womb to certain death, and are to glorify him by their destruction. (John Calvin: Institutes of the Christian Religion, Boek 3, Chapter 23, Sec. 2231) (Emphasis added)

God, according to the good pleasure of his will, without any regard to merit, elects those whom he chooses for sons, while he rejects and reprobates others . . . it is right for him to show by punishing that he is a just judge . . . The Lord therefore may show favor to whom he will, because he is merciful; not show it to all, because he is a just judge. (John Calvin: Institutes of the Christian Religion, Book 3, Chapter 23, Section 2234) (Emphasis added).

I am particularly thrilled, enthralled, fascinated and spellbound by Calvin’s vast knowledge of God’s Word. I would never have picked up the part in Scripture which says, “it pleased God to exclude the reprobate from the inheritance which he predestined to his children” if I hadn’t been enlightened by John Calvin’s brilliant insights and “Institutes.” I’m not much of a Berean, but I really try to check out the things I hear from the lips of people who are most esteemed by other much esteemed scholars in divinity. I searched the Scriptures and came upon the following passages that don’t seem to gel with John Calvin’s view of God being pleased to exclude the reprobates . . . blah . . . blah . . . blah. Let’s see what they say.

Ezekiel 18:32 “For I have no pleasure in the death of anyone who dies,” declares the Lord God. “Therefore, repent and live.”

Ezekiel 33:11 “Say to them, ‘As I live!’ declares the Lord God, ‘I take no pleasure in the death of the wicked, but rather that the wicked turn from his way and live. Turn back, turn back from your evil ways! Why then will you die, O house of Israel?’ (Emphasis added)

Now! Is there anybody out there somewhere who could point out the liar to me? Calvin said it pleases God to send the reprobate (the irretrievably wicked) to hell while God Himself says He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked. Someone is lying and I’m pretty sure it cannot be God who said:

Numbers 23:19 God is not a man [such as John Calvin], that He should lie, . . .

Wow! Imagine that. God never tells a lie; He always tells the truth because He is God, the Way, God the Truth and God the Life. There is no shadow of turning in Him (James 1:17). That’s it! Capiche? If God always tells the truth, where do lies come from? Where do they originate? Let’s do the right thing and turn to God who never tells a lie to find out where lies come from. God says:

John 8:44-45 He [Satan] was a murderer from the beginning, and does not stand in the truth because there is no truth in him. Whenever he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own nature, for he is a liar and the father of lies. “But because I speak the truth, you do not believe Me.

Do you see the problem here? Once you fail to see that Jesus speaks the truth you begin to fall prey to the lies of the father of all lies, Satan himself. Some may ask of me: “How dare you suggest that John Calvin, one of the greatest reformers in the history of the church was a liar? Blasphemy! Blasphemy!” No, no, no, no, my friend, whoever you may be, I am not suggesting that John Calvin was a liar. I’m proving that God who is no liar said something totally different from what John Calvin claimed He said. I am merely juxtaposing God’s words with those of Calvin and making a reasonable choice. If God speaks the truth, then follow Him but if Calvin speaks the truth, then follow him. You cannot have it both ways. Either you believe God who says that He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked or you believe Calvin who said that God is pleased to exclude the reprobate from the inheritance which he predestined to his children. However, bear in mind that if you choose to believe John Calvin’s doctrine of predestination you are actually making God a liar. And please don’t tell me that I do not understand what Calvin said in the above quote from his Institutes. Ah! But even when you quote Calvin word for word our dear Calvinist friends would still accuse you of misunderstanding him. If Calvinism is the purist expression of the Bible and if the Bible is not an obscure book, why must Calvinism be so esoteric?

Here are a few more quotes from the elected and sanctified lips of a few elect.

Christ’s redeeming work was intended to save the elect only and actually secured salvation for them. His death was a substitutionary endurance of the penalty of sin in the place of certain specified sinners . . . The gift of faith is infallibly applied by the Spirit to all for whom Christ died, thereby guaranteeing their salvation (David N Steele and Curtis C Thomas, The Five Points of Calvinism (Presbyterian and Reformed Publishing Co. 196, 17) (Emphasis added)

This is called godly favouritism and partiality although Calvinists prefer to call it divine sovereignty. Once again we must determine who is the liar. Could it be God who said that He shows no favouritism whatsoever to anyone? (Romans 2:11) or is it our two distinguished elected favourites who have no qualms whatsoever to twist and turn and mutilate God’s Word?

The following statement by another favourite of God is a real humdinger.

If Jesus died for every person, but not every person is saved, His death did not actually save anybody . . . . If Christ died for people who will be in hell , His efforts cannot actually be called a “saving work” [and] there is no real saving power in the blood. Rather, the power would seem to be in the will of the creature . . . These points lie at the heart of the Christian message, for they rest at the foot of the cross. (Michael Scott Horton, Putting Amazing Back Into Grace, Thomas Nelson Publishers, 1991, p. 89) (Emphasis added).

Since when is the efficaciousness and value of Jesus Christ ‘blood determined by the amount of saved sinners, in this case every single person? The reasoning here is that if Christ died for all people but all people are not saved, then his blood sacrifice cannot be seen as a saving work. Such a scenario renders his blood sacrifice worthless an a complete failure. Therefore, to make it effectual “all people” must be saved, but it is not “all people” in the sense of it being the entire world. It is “all people within the fold of the elect.” Voila! All the elect who are and will be saved without exception gives the blood of Jesus its efficaciousness and value.

Here’s another one of the elect’s bright and illumined ideas.

Because God has loved certain ones and not all, because He has sovereignly and immutably determined that these particular ones will be saved. He sent His Son to die for them, to save them, and not all the world.” (Edwin H Palmer, The Five Points of Calvinism (Baker Books, enlarged ed. 20th prtg, 1999, p. 50) (Emphasis added)

And now, at last, we come to the riddle which is tied up with Jesus’ words in Luke 19:10: “For the Son of man is come to seek and to save that which was lost.” Please bear in mind that in the Calvinists’ world there are two groups of people — the “elect” and the “reprobate” and not “believers” and “unbelievers” as the Bible distinguishes between them. As we’ve seen from the above quotes Jesus died on the cross for the elect only because they alone have been predestined before the foundation of the world to be saved monergistically. On the other hand, the reprobates have been chosen or elected by God, even before the foundation of the earth, to be cast into the lake of fire because Christ did not die for them. He only died for the elect. If Jesus Christ came to seek and to save the “lost” and only the elect are saved the obvious conclusion to make is that only the elect were/are lost. Moreover, if the reprobate cannot be saved because they have been predestined to eternal damnation before the foundation of the world, Jesus did not come to seek and to save them and therefore one must conclude that they are, never have been and shall never be lost. Allow me to summarize it as follows.

1. Jesus came to our world to seek and to save the lost.

2. Only the elect are saved.

3. Therefore, only the elect are lost and not the so-called reprobates.

4. If the reprobates are not lost, simply because Jesus came to seek and save the lost (the elect only), it would mean (according to Calvinistic thinking) that every single reprobate will go to heaven because not a single one of them is lost.

The final question that needs to be answered is:

Are the reprobate lost? If your answer is in the affirmative, then you must agree that Jesus came to the earth to seek and to save them as well. If that is true, then Jesus actually died on the cross for them as well. If your answer is in the negative, then it confirms my assertion that only the elect are lost.

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2 Responses to “Only Calvin’s Elect are Lost? The Reprobates are not . . .? Can You Help Me to Solve This Riddle?”

  1. Thomas said

    Please read reply here

  2. Ben said

    Hi Thomas

    As I explained in a previous post, I’m just an ordinary Christian with no formal theological training (except for a month or so at TUKS which I abandoned due to the false teaching there) and can therefore not speak for those far more learned than I am. In spite of that I would, however, like to make an attempt to respond to your article in the hope that God may see fit to reveal to us the truth in this matter.

    Firstly, as far as I am aware, one of the principal rules of hermeneutics is that, since all Scripture is God-breathed, one is not to interpret any part of Scripture in such a way that it contradicts any other part of Scripture. Consequently, in view of the fact that the Bible clearly teaches that whatever God purposes will most certainly come to pass (Isaiah 46:10-11; Daniel 4:35; Proverbs 19:21; Psalm 115:3), it seems clear to me that Ezekiel 18:32 and 33:11 should not be interpreted to say that God actually purposed (i.e. ordained) to save ALL the wicked since the plain teaching of Scripture is that NOT ALL the wicked will, in fact, be saved.

    How then should these passages be interpreted? It is clear that (1) God has no pleasure in the destruction of the wicked but would rather that they repent and be saved and yet it is certain that (2) some of the wicked will surely not repent and be destroyed. It seems to me that there are only two ways of explaining why the wicked are not brought to repentance: (1) Either God is willing to bring the wicked to repentance but is unable to do so, or (2) God is able to bring the wicked to repentance but does not will it. Clearly, in the light of the plain testimony of Scripture that God will accomplish all his purposes and that none can stand against him (For who can resist his will? – Rom. 9:19), God is able to bring to repentance whomsoever He purposes to bring to repentance (remember King Nebuchadnezzar and the apostle Paul!). Therefore, it must be true that, (1) even though God has no pleasure in the destruction of the wicked and truly desires that they should repent, (2) God hasn’t purposed (i.e. ordained) to bring all the wicked to repentance.

    Does Scripture support this interpretation? I believe so. Let’s look at the Lord Jesus’ teaching in Matthew 11:20-24:

    Then he began to denounce the cities where most of his mighty works had been done, because they did not repent. “Woe to you, Chorazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! For if the mighty works done in you had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. But I tell you, it will be more bearable on the day of judgment for Tyre and Sidon than for you. And you, Capernaum, will you be exalted to heaven? You will be brought down to Hades. For if the mighty works done in you had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day. But I tell you that it will be more tolerable on the day of judgment for the land of Sodom than for you.” (Matthew 11:20-24)

    I think we can all agree on the basis of Ezekiel 18:32 and 33:11 that God had no pleasure in the destruction of Tyre, Sidon and Sodom but would rather that they had repented. Yet, it is clear that had Christ done the same mighty works in the cities of Tyre, Sidon and Sodom than He had done in Chorazin and Bethsaida, they would have repented and would not have been destroyed. It was therefore unmistakably in God’s power to bring these cities to repentance. Why then, if God had no pleasure in their destruction and was able bring them to repentance, didn’t He? The Lord Jesus doesn’t tell us, but whatever the reason may have been, it must have been more pleasing to God than the salvation of the inhabitants of Tyre, Sidon and Sodom.

    With this in mind, let’s look again at what Calvin wrote:

    Those, therefore, whom God passes by he reprobates, and that for no other cause but because he is pleased to exclude them from the inheritance which he predestines to his children

    I don’t believe Calvin meant by the phrase “he is pleased to exclude them”, that God enjoys excluding them anymore than the KJV translators meant that the Father enjoyed bruising his Son when they translated the Isaiah 53:10 to say that “it pleased the LORD to bruise him.” Had Calvin meant that, he would indeed have been contradicting God’s Word. What he meant, though, was simply that it is God’s will to exclude them (possibly a reference to Ephesians 1:9). It seems to me that though God has no pleasure in the destruction of the wicked per se, He does have pleasure in righteous judgement and desires, to quote the words of apostle Paul, “to show his wrath and to make known his power… in order to make known the riches of his glory for vessels of mercy” (Romans 9:22-23). We must remember that the greatest good is not the salvation of all men, but rather, since God himself is the ultimate good, that God should be known for who He is!

    Secondly, regarding your comments on Luke 19:13. This passage is evidently a response to those people who grumbled against Jesus that he had gone to be a guest of a man who is a “sinner” (Luke 19:7). It’s important to note that the Lord Jesus is not here making a statement concerning election (see John 6 and 10 where He addresses the topic of election specifically), but is rather rebuking those who are self-righteous for their hypocritical judgement. Jesus also made a similar statement in Luke 5:31-32 when he told the Pharisees that only those who are sick have need of a physician and that He had come to call sinners to repentance and not the righteous. Did He thereby imply that the Pharisees were righteous and didn’t need to repent? No. He meant to show them that by claiming to be righteous they disqualified themselves from being saved. Something similar is happening in Luke 19:13.

    Accordingly, taking into account the context of the passage as a whole, it becomes apparent that by the term “the lost” Jesus means those (like Levi) who are aware of their lost condition and desire to come to Him in order to be saved from it and not those, who (like those who grumbled), though they are lost in a very real sense, are unwilling to admit their lost state. It moreover becomes apparent that indeed ONLY the elect (by virtue of regeneration) are “the lost” in the sense in which I believe the Lord Jesus uses the term in this passage. Jesus Christ will not save those who stubbornly refuse to acknowledge their lost state and do not desire to come to Him in order to be saved from it (that would be all of us apart from God’s grace), but only those who appreciate their desperate condition and are willing to come to Him for salvation. All those who come to Him in this way, He will most certainly never turn away!

    Finally, I would like to remind you that even if you reject the doctrines of grace, but agree that God only elected those whom He knew in advance would believe in Him, you nevertheless cannot escape the fact that God brought into existence those whom He knew beforehand would not believe in Jesus Christ and would consequently be damned. If God brought them into existence knowing that they would reject Him, how does that not qualify as God predestining them to eternal damnation (reprobation)?

    Hope to hear from you.

    Ben

    S.D.G.

    P.S. I think it’s a logical fallacy to conclude that since (1) Jesus came to save the lost (i.e. only those who belong to the lost category) and (2) only the elect are saved that, therefore, (3) ONLY the elect are lost. While it is a valid to conclude that since (1) Jesus came to seek only the lost and (2) only the elect are saved, therefore, (3) ALL the elect are lost (i.e. belong to the lost category), it doesn’t follow that ONLY the elect are lost since it is logically possible that there are others belonging to the lost category whom Jesus did not come to save. The deduction that ONLY the elect are lost would only be valid if Jesus came to save ALL the lost, but this is not stated in the text, nor in any way implied by the context (as explained above). Your deduction that only the elect are lost, if not an error of logic, therefore represents a clear example of eisegesis (i.e. reading your theology into the text).

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