Ben wrote an interesting comment in response to my article “Only Calvin’s Elect are Lost? The Reprobates are not . . .? Can You Help Me to Solve This Riddle? that proves beyond any doubt that many people cling to Calvinism without really knowing what its all about. Dave Hunt calls them “Calvinists by default.” I have therefore decided to answer him in this special commentary in stead of just responding to him in the ordinary commentary slot.
BEN: Firstly, as far as I am aware, one of the principal rules of hermeneutics is that, since all Scripture is God-breathed, one is not to interpret any part of Scripture in such a way that it contradicts any other part of Scripture. Consequently, in view of the fact that the Bible clearly teaches that whatever God purposes will most certainly come to pass (Isaiah 46:10-11; Daniel 4:35; Proverbs 19:21; Psalm 115:3), it seems clear to me that Ezekiel 18:32 and 33:11 should not be interpreted to say that God actually purposed (i.e. ordained) to save ALL the wicked since the plain teaching of Scripture is that NOT ALL the wicked will, in fact, be saved.
Your commentaries, not unlike my own, are a rather protracted and it will take some doing to respond to it fairly and intelligently. I agree with you wholeheartedly that we consistently need to adhere to sound hermeneutics, since all Scripture is God-breathed. We dare not interpret certain passages in a way that may contradict other passages in Scripture. Therefore, the phrase “It is also written” should not be ignored and neither should we fail to take the particular contexts of those passages into account. Unfortunately Calvinists do not seem to hold true to the contextual rule of interpretation and very often read their own theology into the text, something which you accused me of. To begin, we first need to put the Scripture passages you mentioned in their right context.
Isaiah 46:10-11
Nowhere in the entire chapter does Isaiah in the very least suggest that God’s purposes with regard to a predestined salvation of a chosen few will come to pass. Chapters 46 and 47 describe God’s purposes to use Babylon as his instrument of judgement on the idolatrous Judah and to subsequently severely punish Babylon for abusing its power (Habakkuk 1:6-11). Babylon prided herself in her own idolatrous gods, believing that they had given them the victory over Judah, not realizing and acknowledging that they had been able to conquer Judah, God’s inheritance, ONLY because God in his sovereignly decreed purposes allowed it to happen (Isaiah 47:6). God proved his awesome uniqueness compared to the impotence of a bunch of inanimate and lifeless Babylonian gods who were unable to save them from His righteous judgments, that His counsel will stand and that no one, not even their idolatrous gods and sorcerers, would be able to save Babylon from his wrath. What were his counsels? He predicted through his prophet Isaiah Babylon’s fall to the Persians in 539 BC 150 years before the event took place, proving that He declares the end from the beginning, “and from ancient times the things that are not yet done, saying, My counsel shall stand, and I will do all my pleasure.” The crux of the matter is that God in his awesome omniscience foreknew that Judah, His inheritance, would backslide into idolatry and therefore decided (counselled) that He would use Babylon to punish her. Could his judgements have been averted? The following passage from Scripture you mentioned, Daniel 4:35, proves that it could have been averted, on one condition — through faith and repentance.
Daniel 4:35
Once again there is no indication whatsoever in this verse that God’s purpose and counsel is to save only the elect and to condemn the reprobate. It is very interesting to note that after Daniel’s interpretation of Nebuchadnezzar’s dream in which God revealed his purpose and counsel to punish the king for his pride, huge egotism and arrogance, Daniel solemnly exhorted the king to renounce his sins and repent. This undoubtedly proved the godly principle that his announcements of judgements can indeed be averted, provided the offender and sinner repented of his ways. Daniel was obviously familiar with this godly principle and therefore urged the king to bow in submission to God and repent of his sinfulness. Had Nebuchadnezzar done so, he would have averted his seven years of insanity, despite the purposes and counsel of God. Calvinists could probably argue that Nebuchadnezzar was a fine specimen of an elect person and that God had purposed and decreed that he would save him regardless of his waywardness. If man had no will of his own, was completely unable to understand the invitation to repent and the offer of salvation, and unable to believe or practice faith of his own accord, Daniel would never have exhorted the king to repent.
Proverbs 19:21
How you possibly can link this verse to Calvin’s doctrine of predestination is a real mystery to me. It simply means that man may and also should plan ahead (Proverbs 16: 1 and 9) but that God may decide to sovereignly overrule his plans to accomplish his own plans. It has nothing to do with salvation or election.
Psalm 115:3
I have become rather weary of people’s audacity to quote single verses because certain words conveniently verify their own pet doctrines. Once again we need to take the whole context of this Psalm into account in order to understand the meaning of verse 21. Here, as in Isaiah 46, the Psalmist demonstrates the futility, wickedness and sinfulness of those who put their trust in idols instead of Almighty God who is sovereign and does whatever He desires. It does not mean that He desires anyone to perish in the eternal lake of fire. There are too many passages in Scripture that testify to this and, as you have already said, the principles and rules of hermeneutics demand that we do not interpret passages in such a way that it contradicts other passages.
It is obvious that you quoted all the above passages to strengthen the Calvinistic interpretation of Ezekiel 18:32 and 33:11 and conveniently changed the underlying meaning of “no desire or pleasure in the death of . . .” (eternal damnation) to “no desire or pleasure in the life of . . .” (eternal life). These verses distinctly say that God has no pleasure in the fact that some people are going to end up in hell. It does not say that He has no pleasure in saving all people, simply because not all the wicked are going to be saved. The fact that not all the wicked are going to be saved, does not mean that it is God’s pleasure not to save all people. Let’s follow your advice on sound hermeneutics and compare these verses with a similar one in the New Testament.
2 Peter 3: 9 The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us–ward, not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance.
Simple hermeneutics prove that God has no pleasure that anyone should perish and if He desires no one to perish it simply means that He desires all men to be saved. If we were to use your interpretation of the two passages in Ezekiel we would have to render 2 Peter 3: 9 as follows: The Lord is not slack concerning his promise, as some men count slackness; but is longsuffering to us–ward, not willing that all should be saved, but that some should perish.
Does that hold true to your own law of sound hermeneutics? I really don’t think so. It is an irrefutable fact that most people are going to perish. The question is: Are they going to perish because God purposed (ordained) it so OR because they themselves wilfully and wickedly rejected Jesus and trod under foot His blood? I must say that I’m not impressed with your hermeneutics, but then again one can expect it from Calvinists who believe that God ordained some (the reprobate) to eternal torment in hell.
BEN: How then should these passages be interpreted? It is clear that (1) God has no pleasure in the destruction of the wicked but would rather that they repent and be saved and yet it is certain that (2) some of the wicked will surely not repent and be destroyed. It seems to me that there are only two ways of explaining why the wicked are not brought to repentance: (1) Either God is willing to bring the wicked to repentance but is unable to do so, or (2) God is able to bring the wicked to repentance but does not will it. Clearly, in the light of the plain testimony of Scripture that God will accomplish all his purposes and that none can stand against him (For who can resist his will? – Rom. 9:19), God is able to bring to repentance whomsoever He purposes to bring to repentance (remember King Nebuchadnezzar and the apostle Paul!). Therefore, it must be true that, (1) even though God has no pleasure in the destruction of the wicked and truly desires that they should repent, (2) God hasn’t purposed (i.e. ordained) to bring all the wicked to repentance.
Your latter argument proves to me once again why Calvinism is a confused and confusing theology. How do you explain to a child the Gospel when circular reasoning befuddles the brain of even an adult? Imagine saying to a child “Jesus wants you to be in heaven with Him but it is not His will that you go to heaven.” You use the phrase “bring to repentance” no less than five times. I’m not too sure that it is biblical terminology. In fact, I’m quite certain it is not biblical terminology. When Jesus started his ministry He did not say “God is going to bring you to repentance because the kingdom of God is at hand.” He said “Repent ye for the kingdom of God is at hand.” (Matthew 3:2) Neither did He say, “I tell you, Nay: but, except God brings you to repentance, ye shall all likewise perish (Luke 13:3). He said: “I tell you, Nay: but, except ye repent, ye shall all likewise perish.” The onus rests on every individual person to repent and believe the Gospel in order to be saved (Mark 1:15).
BEN: Does Scripture support this interpretation? I believe so. Let’s look at the Lord Jesus’ teaching in Matthew 11:20-24:
Then he began to denounce the cities where most of his mighty works had been done, because they did not repent. “Woe to you, Chorazin! Woe to you, Bethsaida! For if the mighty works done in you had been done in Tyre and Sidon, they would have repented long ago in sackcloth and ashes. But I tell you, it will be more bearable on the day of judgment for Tyre and Sidon than for you. And you, Capernaum, will you be exalted to heaven? You will be brought down to Hades. For if the mighty works done in you had been done in Sodom, it would have remained until this day. But I tell you that it will be more tolerable on the day of judgment for the land of Sodom than for you.” (Matthew 11:20-24)
I think we can all agree on the basis of Ezekiel 18:32 and 33:11 that God had no pleasure in the destruction of Tyre, Sidon and Sodom but would rather that they had repented. Yet, it is clear that had Christ done the same mighty works in the cities of Tyre, Sidon and Sodom than He had done in Chorazin and Bethsaida, they would have repented and would not have been destroyed. It was therefore unmistakably in God’s power to bring these cities to repentance. Why then, if God had no pleasure in their destruction and was able bring them to repentance, didn’t He? The Lord Jesus doesn’t tell us, but whatever the reason may have been, it must have been more pleasing to God than the salvation of the inhabitants of Tyre, Sidon and Sodom.
Circular reasoning seems to be your forte. Let me try to simplify what you are saying. Jesus had no desire to destroy the three Gentile cities because He has no pleasure in the death of the wicked (Ezekiel 18:32; 33: 11) but had no desire to save them and therefore refrained from doing the miracles in them which He had done in the three Galilean cities with the purpose of bringing them to repentance. Therefore, his purpose to “bring the three Galilean cities to repentance” was a dismal failure while his purpose NOT to bring the three Gentile cities to repentance was a roaring success. In the one case He accomplished his purposes but not in the other where He performed his miracles. You seem to be saying that God’s miracles have the power to bring sinners to repentance and therefore deliberately refrained from performing any in certain cities because He had no desire to bring them to repentance; withhold miracles and you withhold salvation, kind of thing. The main purpose for Jesus’ miracles was to prove, particularly to the Jews, that He was their long awaited Messiah and not to save some people by performing them or deliberately keep some from salvation by not performing them. Why do you think Paul once said: “The Jews seek a sign?”
Your argument “Why then, if God had no pleasure in their destruction and was able to bring them to repentance, didn’t He? The Lord Jesus doesn’t tell us, but whatever the reason may have been, it must have been more pleasing to God than the salvation of the inhabitants of Tyre, Sidon and Sodom” is a real humdinger. I rarely come across people who admit to the obscurity of some inexplicable things but audaciously present you with an answer they regard as the gospel truth. How on earth can you say “we do not know but we do know there is only one way of explaining what we do not know.” This is becoming ridiculous. You are actually attributing to God what the Bible never once attributes to Him and that is a so-called merciless grace. Your notion that his desire not to save or bring to repentance the three Gentile cities proves that He had a more pleasurable purpose in mind, i.e. to condemn them to eternal damnation, not only maligns God’s character but comes dangerously close to blasphemy.
BEN: With this in mind, let’s look again at what Calvin wrote:
Those, therefore, whom God passes by he reprobates, and that for no other cause but because he is pleased to exclude them from the inheritance which he predestines to his children
I don’t believe Calvin meant by the phrase “he is pleased to exclude them”, that God enjoys excluding them anymore than the KJV translators meant that the Father enjoyed bruising his Son when they translated the Isaiah 53:10 to say that “it pleased the LORD to bruise him.” Had Calvin meant that, he would indeed have been contradicting God’s Word. What he meant, though, was simply that it is God’s will to exclude them (possibly a reference to Ephesians 1:9). It seems to me that though God has no pleasure in the destruction of the wicked per se, He does have pleasure in righteous judgement and desires, to quote the words of apostle Paul, “to show his wrath and to make known his power… in order to make known the riches of his glory for vessels of mercy” (Romans 9:22-23). We must remember that the greatest good is not the salvation of all men, but rather, since God himself is the ultimate good, that God should be known for who He is!
“The greatest good is not the salvation of all men but rather . . . that God should be known for who He is???” Really??? How could or would we ever have known who He really is if He had not sent His Son in the flesh to die on a cross for the entire world? Adam and Eve knew who He was; Abraham, Isaac, Jacob and the entire nation of Israel knew who He was; even gentiles amongst them Rahab the harlot knew who He was; all the Old Testament prophets knew who He was and yet He needed to send His Son to die on an old rugged cross to prove to us who He really was and still is. You don’t seem to realize this seeing that you do not believe that it pleased the Father to bruise Him. The greatest meeting ever to be convened in the entire cosmos was the one the Father, Son and Holly Spirit held in heaven to decide, even before the foundation of the earth, that Jesus MUST die. (“Him, being delivered by the determinate counsel and foreknowledge of God, ye have taken, and by wicked hands have crucified and slain” – Acts 2:23). God the Father was pleased to bruise Him because He delighted Himself in the consequences of His vicarious death on the cross (Isaiah 53:10). You should try to read the entire verse some time. It may just inspire you to change your mind for the better.
BEN: Secondly, regarding your comments on Luke 19:13. This passage is evidently a response to those people who grumbled against Jesus that he had gone to be a guest of a man who is a “sinner” (Luke 19:7). It’s important to note that the Lord Jesus is not here making a statement concerning election (see John 6 and 10 where He addresses the topic of election specifically), but is rather rebuking those who are self-righteous for their hypocritical judgement. Jesus also made a similar statement in Luke 05:31-32 when he told the Pharisees that only those who are sick have need of a physician and that He had come to call sinners to repentance and not the righteous. Did He thereby imply that the Pharisees were righteous and didn’t need to repent? No. He meant to show them that by claiming to be righteous they disqualified themselves from being saved. Something similar is happening in Luke 19:13.
I am very pleased to see that you, in complete variance with Calvin’s viewpoint, believe that man is quite capable of qualifying or disqualifying himself for salvation. This, of course, proves that man has a free-will which he can use freely at his own discretion and that God actually honours and respects his free-will. Your use of the word “disqualified” runs against the grain of true Calvinism because it suggests that man is capable of attributing something to his salvation and that per se maligns God’s sovereignty. Had you been a fully-fledged Calvinist (which you have already proven not to be, although some of your thoughts lean heavily toward them) you could never have said the things you have been saying in the above paragraph. Nonetheless, the question we need to ask, is: Did the Pharisees disqualify themselves from salvation because they had not been predestined unto redemption even before the foundation of the earth OR did they disqualify themselves because they refused to believe the Gospel of Jesus Christ? According to the “T” in the TULIP acronym man is completely unable to understand the Gospel en therefore wholly incapable of qualifying (through faith) or disqualifying (through unbelief) himself for redemption. Moreover, Calvinists believe that man is so completely dead in sin that he cannot respond to the Gospel and therefore needs to be redeemed unilaterally of God (monergism) (without faith) before the gift of faith can be given to him.
How can you assert that John 6 and 10 address the topic of election when Jesus specifically refers to faith as a prerequisite for salvation while Calvinists’ believe that faith is only given as a gift to the elect after they had been redeemed monergistically? They take verse 29 and say: “See, faith is a work of God and not of man. God must do a work of faith in the elect before they can believe.” Nonsense! This is not what the plain meaning of the text reveals. It simply means that God requires an act of faith on the part of the sinner before He can save him. Barnes states:
This is the thing that will be acceptable to God, or which you are to do in order to be saved. Jesus did not tell them they had nothing to do, or that they were to sit down and wait, but that there was a work to perform, and that was a duty that was imperative. It was to believe on the Messiah. This is the work which sinners are to do; and doing this they will be saved, for Christ is the end of the law for righteousness to every one that believeth, #Ro 10:4.
BEN Accordingly, taking into account the context of the passage as a whole, it becomes apparent that by the term “the lost” Jesus means those (like Levi) who are aware of their lost condition and desire to come to Him in order to be saved from it and not those, who (like those who grumbled), though they are lost in a very real sense, are unwilling to admit their lost state.
You are merely repeating what I have said in my commentary. The point I was making is that, according to Calvin’s doctrine of total depravity and man’s inability to understand the Gospel, the elect are unable to understand and admit that they are lost. If the Word of God and his Law is the mirror in which a sinner may see and understand his complete lost-ness or lost status, how can the elect admit they are lost when they do not understand the Gospel (the Word of God and his Law)? Indeed, those who grumbled refused to admit that they were lost, and so too the elect cannot admit they are lost, simply because they do not understand the Gospel that tells them they are lost.
BEN: It moreover becomes apparent that indeed ONLY the elect (by virtue of regeneration) are “the lost” in the sense in which I believe the Lord Jesus uses the term in this passage. Jesus Christ will not save those who stubbornly refuse to acknowledge their lost state and do not desire to come to Him in order to be saved from it (that would be all of us apart from God’s grace), but only those who appreciate their desperate condition and are willing to come to Him for salvation. All those who come to Him in this way, He will most certainly never turn away!
I have noticed that Calvinists love to use the words “in the sense” very often. For instance, John Piper and his pastoral staff wrote in “TULIP: What We Believe about the Five Points of Calvinism: Position Paper of the pastoral Staff,” on pages 16 and 17 wrote:
Christ’s death so clearly demonstrates God’s just abhorrence of sin that he is free to treat the world with mercy without compromising his righteousness. In this sense Christ is the Saviour of all men. But he is especially the Saviour of those who believe. He did not die for all men in the same sense . . . The death of Christ actually saves from all evil those for whom Christ died “especially” (Emphasis added).
The elect (God’s favourites) are treated in a “special sense” because Christ did not die for all people in the “same sense.” Nonetheless He died for all men in “this sense.” What on earth is “this sense?” It sounds much like the meaningless and nonsensical expression “sort of” many English speaking people in South Africa love to use. In their vocabulary nothing is certain but everything is “sort of.” Please explain to me in what sense Jesus uses “the lost” in the passage? How many kinds of “senses” are there in the correct understanding of “lost?” Should we invent a brand new degrees of comparison for the word “lost” and happily say “lost,” “more lost,” and “most lost” to define the different meanings of “lost?” Your next statement is equally confusing: “Jesus Christ will not save those who stubbornly refuse to acknowledge their lost state and do not desire to come to Him in order to be saved from it (that would be all of us apart from God’s grace), but only those who appreciate their desperate condition and are willing to come to Him for salvation. All those who come to Him in this way, He will most certainly never turn away!” Of course Jesus will not and cannot save those who refuse to acknowledge their lost status and do not desire to come to Him to be saved, but in the same breath you assert that we all have no desire to come to Him apart from His grace. Here I sense (excuse the pun) something of a mixture of anti-Calvinism and Calvinism. Does that make any sense? Calvinists believe that the human emotion “to desire to seek and to do good” is wholly absent in man’s psyche. Mankind, they say, only desires and is only capable of doing evil. To come to Jesus for salvation is not only a good thing but the best thing anyone can do, BUT man has no desire to take the first step to come to Jesus, simply because He is completely dead in his trespasses and completely unable to do so, according to Calvinist thinking. John MacArthur Jr. wrote:
How can a person who is dead in sin, blinded by Satan, unable to understand the things of God, and continuously filled with evil suddenly exercise saving faith> A corpse could no sooner come out of a grave and walk. (John MacArthur Jr., Saved without a doubt –MacArthur Study Series, p. 58).
What MacArthur seems to overlook is that if man is so completely dead in sin, making him completely unable to understand and believe the Gospel of his own accord, why is it necessary for Satan to blind him to the Gospel?
And yet with a slight twist of compromise you suggest that, although no one has any desire to come to Him, some actually do come to Him by an act of his grace. In what sense are you using “grace” in this particular case — the Calvinist sense of the word or the biblical sense of the word (Titus 2:11)? The Calvinist “sense of salvation” is that no one desires to come to Him for salvation but by means of a monergistic grace He saves only the elect. The others, or reprobates as they are called, also have no desire to come to Him for salvation, but He withholds his grace from them because they are not part of the elect. John Horsch writes:
Augustine . . . was by theological speculation led to the belief in predestination . . . [that] the whole human family is condemned through the sin of Adam, but God in his mercy selects and predestinates a number of them for eternal life. His grace is for these alone, and it is impossible that they should be lost. From the rest of mankind who are not predestinated for salvation, God withholds his grace, and will condemn them even if they should die in infancy . . . (John Horsch, History of Christianity, p. 104-105) (Emphasis added) (He is obviously a “horsch” of another colour).
What kind of grace is that? . . . and you accuse me of rejecting the doctrines of grace? What I do reject is Calvin’s doctrines of grace which contradicts God’s doctrines of grace.
BEN: Finally, I would like to remind you that even if you reject the doctrines of grace, but agree that God only elected those whom He knew in advance would believe in Him, you nevertheless cannot escape the fact that God brought into existence those whom He knew beforehand would not believe in Jesus Christ and would consequently be damned. If God brought them into existence knowing that they would reject Him, how does that not qualify as God predestining them to eternal damnation (reprobation)?
Here again you say things that are absolutely anti-Calvin that proves to me that you don’t seem to understand Calvinism. This may shock you, unless of course you agree with Calvin’s and other Calvinists’ view of God’s attribute of foreknowledge (pre-knowledge). John MacArthur writes:
God’s foreknowledge, therefore, is not a reference to His omniscient foresight but to His foreordination . . . God does indeed foresee who is going to be a believer, but the faith He foresees is the faith He Himself creates. It’s not that He merely sees what will happen in the future; rather he ordains it. The Bible clearly teaches that God sovereignly chooses people to believe in Him. (John MacArthur Jr., Saved without a doubt –MacArthur Study Series, p. 58).
In keeping with Calvin’s Institutes of the Christian Religion, Palmer writes:
Foreordination means God’s sovereign plan,whereby He decides all that is to happen in the entire universe. Nothing in this world happens by chance. God is in back of everything. He decides and causes all things to happen that do happen . . . He has foreordained everything “after the counsel of His will” (Eph. 1:11): the moving of a finger, the beating of a heart, the laughter of a girl, the mistake of the typist – even sin.” (Edwin H Palmer, Foreword to The Five Points off Calvinism, p. 24-25) (Emphasis added).
RC Sproul wtrote:
“Every Bible-believing Christian must conclude at least that God in some sense desired that man would fall into sin . . . . I am not accusing God of sinning; I am suggesting that he created sin.” (R. C. Sproul, Almighty in Authority: Understanding the Sovereignty of God (Grand Rapids: Baker, 1999), 54-55.)
Have you noticed the phrase of convenience “in some sense?” Who is the liar — R. C. Sproul or God who said:
James 1:13-15 Let no man say when he is tempted, I am tempted of God: for God cannot be tempted with evil, neither tempteth he any man: But every man is tempted, when he is drawn away of his own lust, and enticed. Then when lust hath conceived, it bringeth forth sin: and sin, when it is finished, bringeth forth death.
To suggest that God created sin is the worst from of blasphemy. Calvinists don’t seem to heed God’s stern warning in Isaiah 5:
Isaiah 5:20 Woe unto them that call evil good, and good evil; that put darkness for light, and light for darkness; that put bitter for sweet, and sweet for bitter!
BEN: Hope to hear from you.
Ben
S.D.G.
BEN P.S. I think it’s a logical fallacy to conclude that since (1) Jesus came to save the lost (i.e. only those who belong to the lost category) and (2) only the elect are saved that, therefore, (3) ONLY the elect are lost. While it is a valid to conclude that since (1) Jesus came to seek only the lost and (2) only the elect are saved, therefore, (3) ALL the elect are lost (i.e. belong to the lost category), it doesn’t follow that ONLY the elect are lost since it is logically possible that there are others belonging to the lost category whom Jesus did not come to save. The deduction that ONLY the elect are lost would only be valid if Jesus came to save ALL the lost, but this is not stated in the text, nor in any way implied by the context (as explained above). Your deduction that only the elect are lost, if not an error of logic, therefore represents a clear example of eisegesis (i.e. reading your theology into the text).
If your presupposition is correct that others and not ONLY the elect are lost because there are others who are in the lost category for whom Jesus did not die or come to save, then Jesus lied when He said that He came to seek and to save that which is/was lost. If everyone belongs/belonged to the category of lost, then He came with the purpose of saving them ALL and not ONLY the elect. If, as I say, you are correct then Jesus should rather have said:”For the Son of man is come to seek and to save the lost ELECT and to condemn the lost REPROBATES.” and “For God sent not his Son into the world to condemn the world of the ELECT; but that the world OF THE elect through him might be saved and the other world of the REPROBATES through Him might be condemned.
I put it to you that Calvinism, in whatever form, shape or size, is NOT of God. It is another Gospel which preaches another Jesus and espouses another spirit. It is NOT the Gospel of Jesus Christ. It is a gospel that CANNOT save.